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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Two proposed approaches to HVAC System Design for Food Processing Plant Cold Storage Warehouses Refrigeration and Temperature Monitoring for Food Safety conflict. Which approach is more appropriate, and why? A design team is evaluating whether to implement a system that prioritizes high-frequency temperature logging with redundant evaporator circuits to ensure constant air distribution, or a system that utilizes variable set-points to maximize energy efficiency by allowing wider temperature fluctuations during low-load periods.
Correct
Correct: In food processing and cold storage, regulatory compliance (such as HACCP) necessitates strict adherence to temperature limits. Redundant evaporator circuits ensure that if one unit fails, the remaining units can maintain the required temperature, preventing product loss. High-frequency monitoring is essential for providing a continuous audit trail and identifying localized ‘hot spots’ caused by poor air distribution, which could otherwise lead to bacterial growth.
Incorrect: The approach focusing on variable set-points is inappropriate because air temperature fluctuations can lead to surface condensation on products and packaging, facilitating mold and bacterial growth even if core temperatures remain relatively stable. High-velocity air throw can cause excessive product dehydration and uneven cooling zones. Ambient air economizers are generally avoided in food processing environments due to the high risk of introducing airborne contaminants, pathogens, and uncontrolled humidity into a sterile or controlled environment.
Takeaway: In food safety applications, system redundancy and precise temperature stability must take precedence over energy-saving fluctuations to ensure regulatory compliance and prevent microbial risks.
Incorrect
Correct: In food processing and cold storage, regulatory compliance (such as HACCP) necessitates strict adherence to temperature limits. Redundant evaporator circuits ensure that if one unit fails, the remaining units can maintain the required temperature, preventing product loss. High-frequency monitoring is essential for providing a continuous audit trail and identifying localized ‘hot spots’ caused by poor air distribution, which could otherwise lead to bacterial growth.
Incorrect: The approach focusing on variable set-points is inappropriate because air temperature fluctuations can lead to surface condensation on products and packaging, facilitating mold and bacterial growth even if core temperatures remain relatively stable. High-velocity air throw can cause excessive product dehydration and uneven cooling zones. Ambient air economizers are generally avoided in food processing environments due to the high risk of introducing airborne contaminants, pathogens, and uncontrolled humidity into a sterile or controlled environment.
Takeaway: In food safety applications, system redundancy and precise temperature stability must take precedence over energy-saving fluctuations to ensure regulatory compliance and prevent microbial risks.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A client relationship manager at a fund administrator seeks guidance on Expansion Device Functionality as part of internal audit remediation. They explain that during a recent facility inspection of the data center’s climate control system, the maintenance logs for the primary cooling unit showed inconsistent superheat readings over a 48-hour period. The audit team is concerned that the thermostatic expansion valve (TEV) is not modulating correctly, potentially leading to unevaporated refrigerant returning to the compressor. Which of the following best describes the primary thermodynamic function of the expansion device within this vapor compression cycle to mitigate the risk of compressor damage?
Correct
Correct: The expansion device is responsible for reducing the pressure of the high-pressure liquid refrigerant from the condenser to the low-pressure environment of the evaporator. This pressure drop causes a portion of the refrigerant to flash into gas, which absorbs heat from the remaining liquid, cooling it to the required saturation temperature. By accurately metering the mass flow of refrigerant into the evaporator based on the cooling load (often measured via superheat), the device ensures that all liquid is converted to vapor before exiting the evaporator, thereby protecting the compressor from liquid slugging.
Incorrect: Increasing velocity to maximize sensible heat transfer is incorrect because the primary cooling effect in an evaporator is derived from latent heat during the phase change from liquid to vapor. Removing subcooling is not the expansion device’s purpose; subcooling actually improves system capacity and is handled in the condenser or liquid line. The expansion device is a metering component, not a safety bypass for high-pressure vapor; redirecting vapor to the suction line would bypass the cooling process entirely and could overheat the compressor.
Takeaway: The expansion device regulates the pressure drop and mass flow of refrigerant to maintain the correct superheat, ensuring efficient evaporation and protecting the compressor from liquid intake.
Incorrect
Correct: The expansion device is responsible for reducing the pressure of the high-pressure liquid refrigerant from the condenser to the low-pressure environment of the evaporator. This pressure drop causes a portion of the refrigerant to flash into gas, which absorbs heat from the remaining liquid, cooling it to the required saturation temperature. By accurately metering the mass flow of refrigerant into the evaporator based on the cooling load (often measured via superheat), the device ensures that all liquid is converted to vapor before exiting the evaporator, thereby protecting the compressor from liquid slugging.
Incorrect: Increasing velocity to maximize sensible heat transfer is incorrect because the primary cooling effect in an evaporator is derived from latent heat during the phase change from liquid to vapor. Removing subcooling is not the expansion device’s purpose; subcooling actually improves system capacity and is handled in the condenser or liquid line. The expansion device is a metering component, not a safety bypass for high-pressure vapor; redirecting vapor to the suction line would bypass the cooling process entirely and could overheat the compressor.
Takeaway: The expansion device regulates the pressure drop and mass flow of refrigerant to maintain the correct superheat, ensuring efficient evaporation and protecting the compressor from liquid intake.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
An escalation from the front office at a listed company concerns Refrigeration Principles and Thermodynamics during record-keeping. The team reports that during a routine maintenance audit of the central cooling plant, the liquid line temperature entering the expansion valve is significantly higher than the design specification, despite the condenser pressure remaining within normal operating limits. The facility manager is concerned about the impact on system capacity and the potential for premature component wear. What is the primary thermodynamic consequence of insufficient subcooling in the liquid line before the refrigerant reaches the expansion device?
Correct
Correct: Subcooling is the process of cooling liquid refrigerant below its saturation temperature at a given pressure. Its primary purpose is to ensure that the refrigerant remains a 100% liquid before it reaches the expansion device. If subcooling is insufficient, the refrigerant may begin to boil (flash) prematurely due to pressure drops in the liquid line or the expansion process itself. This ‘flash gas’ provides no cooling effect in the evaporator, thereby reducing the total enthalpy change available for heat absorption and lowering the system’s overall cooling capacity.
Incorrect: While compressor discharge temperature is influenced by suction superheat and the compression ratio, it is not the direct thermodynamic consequence of liquid line subcooling levels. The latent heat of vaporization is a physical property of the refrigerant at a specific pressure and is not increased by a lack of subcooling; instead, less of that potential heat absorption is utilized effectively. Insufficient subcooling would likely decrease the density of the refrigerant if bubbles form, rather than increasing it, and would negatively impact the mass flow through the expansion orifice.
Takeaway: Adequate subcooling is critical to prevent flash gas formation, ensuring that the maximum possible enthalpy difference is available for heat absorption in the evaporator.
Incorrect
Correct: Subcooling is the process of cooling liquid refrigerant below its saturation temperature at a given pressure. Its primary purpose is to ensure that the refrigerant remains a 100% liquid before it reaches the expansion device. If subcooling is insufficient, the refrigerant may begin to boil (flash) prematurely due to pressure drops in the liquid line or the expansion process itself. This ‘flash gas’ provides no cooling effect in the evaporator, thereby reducing the total enthalpy change available for heat absorption and lowering the system’s overall cooling capacity.
Incorrect: While compressor discharge temperature is influenced by suction superheat and the compression ratio, it is not the direct thermodynamic consequence of liquid line subcooling levels. The latent heat of vaporization is a physical property of the refrigerant at a specific pressure and is not increased by a lack of subcooling; instead, less of that potential heat absorption is utilized effectively. Insufficient subcooling would likely decrease the density of the refrigerant if bubbles form, rather than increasing it, and would negatively impact the mass flow through the expansion orifice.
Takeaway: Adequate subcooling is critical to prevent flash gas formation, ensuring that the maximum possible enthalpy difference is available for heat absorption in the evaporator.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
During your tenure as operations manager at a private bank, a matter arises concerning HVAC System Design for Auditorium and Theater Performance Spaces Acoustic Considerations and Air Distribution for Sound Quality during record-keeping. The bank is currently renovating its primary historical auditorium used for high-profile shareholder meetings and recorded presentations. A recent acoustic survey indicates that the existing HVAC system exceeds the target Noise Criteria (NC) rating of 25 due to turbulent air noise at the terminal units. You are reviewing the proposed design for the new air distribution system to ensure it meets the stringent acoustic requirements while maintaining thermal comfort for a 500-person capacity. Which design strategy is most effective for reducing regenerated noise at the air terminal devices while ensuring adequate air mixing in this performance space?
Correct
Correct: In performance spaces like auditoriums, the primary source of HVAC noise is often the turbulence created at the diffusers. By selecting oversized diffusers, the face velocity is reduced, which significantly lowers the sound power level and helps achieve a low NC rating. Providing straight duct sections before the terminal ensures a uniform velocity profile, preventing the ‘system effect’ that causes additional turbulence and noise at the point of discharge.
Incorrect: Increasing static pressure at VAV boxes typically increases noise due to the throttling of dampers and higher air speeds. High-velocity jet nozzles are unsuitable for quiet environments as they generate significant aerodynamic noise that would exceed NC-25. Reducing duct size increases velocity and turbulence, which raises noise levels within the audible spectrum and increases the risk of vibration, rather than solving the acoustic issue.
Takeaway: To achieve low Noise Criteria (NC) ratings in auditoriums, designers must prioritize low air velocities at terminal devices and minimize turbulence through proper duct geometry and sizing.
Incorrect
Correct: In performance spaces like auditoriums, the primary source of HVAC noise is often the turbulence created at the diffusers. By selecting oversized diffusers, the face velocity is reduced, which significantly lowers the sound power level and helps achieve a low NC rating. Providing straight duct sections before the terminal ensures a uniform velocity profile, preventing the ‘system effect’ that causes additional turbulence and noise at the point of discharge.
Incorrect: Increasing static pressure at VAV boxes typically increases noise due to the throttling of dampers and higher air speeds. High-velocity jet nozzles are unsuitable for quiet environments as they generate significant aerodynamic noise that would exceed NC-25. Reducing duct size increases velocity and turbulence, which raises noise levels within the audible spectrum and increases the risk of vibration, rather than solving the acoustic issue.
Takeaway: To achieve low Noise Criteria (NC) ratings in auditoriums, designers must prioritize low air velocities at terminal devices and minimize turbulence through proper duct geometry and sizing.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which safeguard provides the strongest protection when dealing with Thermodynamic Cycles (Carnot, Rankine)? When evaluating a refrigeration system’s performance against the theoretical Carnot cycle, which design strategy serves as the most critical protection against the thermodynamic irreversibility that prevents a system from reaching its maximum potential Coefficient of Performance (COP)?
Correct
Correct: The Carnot cycle is an idealized thermodynamic cycle that assumes heat transfer occurs isothermally (at a constant temperature). In real-world applications, heat transfer requires a temperature gradient (delta T) between the refrigerant and the medium (air or water). This temperature difference is a primary source of entropy and irreversibility. By minimizing this temperature difference through better heat exchanger design or larger surface areas, the system operates closer to the isothermal ideal of the Carnot cycle, thereby protecting and maximizing the system’s COP.
Incorrect: Increasing superheat is a mechanical safeguard for the compressor but actually increases the work of compression and moves the cycle further away from the ideal Carnot cycle. Selecting a refrigerant based solely on critical pressure does not address the fundamental heat transfer losses inherent in the cycle. While high-velocity airflow improves heat transfer rates, it does not necessarily minimize the temperature differential; if the delta T remains high, the thermodynamic efficiency relative to the Carnot limit remains low due to the entropy generated by that gradient.
Takeaway: The primary thermodynamic loss in refrigeration cycles compared to the Carnot ideal is the temperature difference required for heat transfer in the evaporator and condenser.
Incorrect
Correct: The Carnot cycle is an idealized thermodynamic cycle that assumes heat transfer occurs isothermally (at a constant temperature). In real-world applications, heat transfer requires a temperature gradient (delta T) between the refrigerant and the medium (air or water). This temperature difference is a primary source of entropy and irreversibility. By minimizing this temperature difference through better heat exchanger design or larger surface areas, the system operates closer to the isothermal ideal of the Carnot cycle, thereby protecting and maximizing the system’s COP.
Incorrect: Increasing superheat is a mechanical safeguard for the compressor but actually increases the work of compression and moves the cycle further away from the ideal Carnot cycle. Selecting a refrigerant based solely on critical pressure does not address the fundamental heat transfer losses inherent in the cycle. While high-velocity airflow improves heat transfer rates, it does not necessarily minimize the temperature differential; if the delta T remains high, the thermodynamic efficiency relative to the Carnot limit remains low due to the entropy generated by that gradient.
Takeaway: The primary thermodynamic loss in refrigeration cycles compared to the Carnot ideal is the temperature difference required for heat transfer in the evaporator and condenser.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
The quality assurance team at a broker-dealer identified a finding related to Cleanroom HVAC for Battery Component Assembly and Integration as part of model risk. The assessment reveals that the current environmental control strategy for a specialized battery production facility is unable to achieve the required -40°C dew point using standard mechanical refrigeration cycles. The audit report indicates that the evaporator coil temperatures required to reach such low moisture levels would result in immediate frost formation, leading to system failure. Which psychrometric solution should the engineering team implement to mitigate this operational risk?
Correct
Correct: For ultra-low dew points required in battery assembly (often -40°C or lower), mechanical cooling is ineffective because water vapor freezes on the coil at 0°C. Desiccant systems use materials like silica gel to adsorb moisture directly from the air, allowing for extremely low humidity levels without the limitations of refrigerant-to-air heat exchange and frost accumulation. This is the standard industry approach for ‘dry room’ applications.
Incorrect: Air wash systems saturate air, which is the opposite of the deep dehumidification needed for battery assembly. Cascade systems reaching -50°C would cause massive ice buildup from any moisture in the air, making the process unsustainable for continuous cleanroom operation due to constant defrosting. Increasing the sensible heat ratio or reducing chilled water flow would decrease the system’s ability to remove latent heat (moisture), making the humidity problem worse rather than better.
Takeaway: Achieving ultra-low dew points in cleanrooms requires desiccant dehumidification because mechanical cooling is limited by the freezing point of water on evaporator surfaces.
Incorrect
Correct: For ultra-low dew points required in battery assembly (often -40°C or lower), mechanical cooling is ineffective because water vapor freezes on the coil at 0°C. Desiccant systems use materials like silica gel to adsorb moisture directly from the air, allowing for extremely low humidity levels without the limitations of refrigerant-to-air heat exchange and frost accumulation. This is the standard industry approach for ‘dry room’ applications.
Incorrect: Air wash systems saturate air, which is the opposite of the deep dehumidification needed for battery assembly. Cascade systems reaching -50°C would cause massive ice buildup from any moisture in the air, making the process unsustainable for continuous cleanroom operation due to constant defrosting. Increasing the sensible heat ratio or reducing chilled water flow would decrease the system’s ability to remove latent heat (moisture), making the humidity problem worse rather than better.
Takeaway: Achieving ultra-low dew points in cleanrooms requires desiccant dehumidification because mechanical cooling is limited by the freezing point of water on evaporator surfaces.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
What is the primary risk associated with Air Quality, Temperature, and Humidity Management for Animal Health and Productivity, and how should it be mitigated? During an audit of a climate-controlled intensive farming facility, the auditor notes that the environmental management system (EMS) triggers cooling and ventilation based exclusively on dry-bulb temperature setpoints. Which of the following identifies the most significant risk to animal welfare and the appropriate control improvement?
Correct
Correct: In animal health management, dry-bulb temperature is an incomplete metric for heat stress. Animals rely on evaporative cooling (sweating or panting) to reject heat. If the relative humidity is high, the air’s capacity to absorb moisture is reduced, meaning the animal cannot dissipate heat even if the temperature seems acceptable. The Temperature-Humidity Index (THI) is a psychrometric calculation that combines temperature and humidity to assess the true risk of heat stress. Mitigating this risk requires sensors that can measure both variables to adjust ventilation and cooling strategies dynamically.
Incorrect: The second option focuses on mechanical protection of the refrigeration system (compressor safety) rather than the primary risk to animal health and productivity. The third option discusses thermodynamic efficiency (COP and subcooling) which, while important for energy management, does not address the physiological needs of the livestock regarding air quality and humidity. The fourth option mentions adiabatic saturation and bypass factors incorrectly; adiabatic saturation is a process, not a state of risk, and increasing the bypass factor actually reduces the dehumidification capacity of the evaporator, which would worsen a high-humidity scenario.
Takeaway: Effective environmental control for livestock must account for the psychrometric relationship between temperature and humidity to prevent heat stress and maintain productivity.
Incorrect
Correct: In animal health management, dry-bulb temperature is an incomplete metric for heat stress. Animals rely on evaporative cooling (sweating or panting) to reject heat. If the relative humidity is high, the air’s capacity to absorb moisture is reduced, meaning the animal cannot dissipate heat even if the temperature seems acceptable. The Temperature-Humidity Index (THI) is a psychrometric calculation that combines temperature and humidity to assess the true risk of heat stress. Mitigating this risk requires sensors that can measure both variables to adjust ventilation and cooling strategies dynamically.
Incorrect: The second option focuses on mechanical protection of the refrigeration system (compressor safety) rather than the primary risk to animal health and productivity. The third option discusses thermodynamic efficiency (COP and subcooling) which, while important for energy management, does not address the physiological needs of the livestock regarding air quality and humidity. The fourth option mentions adiabatic saturation and bypass factors incorrectly; adiabatic saturation is a process, not a state of risk, and increasing the bypass factor actually reduces the dehumidification capacity of the evaporator, which would worsen a high-humidity scenario.
Takeaway: Effective environmental control for livestock must account for the psychrometric relationship between temperature and humidity to prevent heat stress and maintain productivity.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Serving as product governance lead at a credit union, you are called to advise on HVAC System Design for Fire Station Living Quarters and Apparatus Bays Reliability and Rapid Response HVAC during sanctions screening. The briefing a control review for a municipal infrastructure loan requires you to assess the risk of moisture-related building failure in a new fire station design. The station features a high-traffic apparatus bay adjacent to climate-controlled living quarters. When the bay doors open for emergency responses, large volumes of unconditioned, humid air enter the facility. To mitigate the risk of mold and structural degradation at the boundary between these zones, which psychrometric property must the design primarily manage?
Correct
Correct: In environments where conditioned living spaces are adjacent to unconditioned areas like apparatus bays, the primary risk is the infiltration of warm, moist air. If the dew point of this air is higher than the surface temperature of the walls or ductwork in the living quarters, condensation will form. Managing the dew point through dehumidification or air pressure barriers is the standard engineering control to prevent mold growth and protect the building envelope.
Incorrect: Focusing on the sensible heat ratio or dry bulb temperature is insufficient because these measures only address temperature changes and do not account for the latent heat (moisture) that causes condensation. Adiabatic saturation is a process that adds moisture to the air to cool it, which would exacerbate the humidity problem in a fire station. Controlling specific volume for mass flow rate is a mechanical transport concern that does not address the psychrometric risk of moisture-related structural damage.
Takeaway: Effective HVAC design in high-infiltration zones requires precise management of the dew point to prevent condensation and ensure the structural and biological integrity of the facility.
Incorrect
Correct: In environments where conditioned living spaces are adjacent to unconditioned areas like apparatus bays, the primary risk is the infiltration of warm, moist air. If the dew point of this air is higher than the surface temperature of the walls or ductwork in the living quarters, condensation will form. Managing the dew point through dehumidification or air pressure barriers is the standard engineering control to prevent mold growth and protect the building envelope.
Incorrect: Focusing on the sensible heat ratio or dry bulb temperature is insufficient because these measures only address temperature changes and do not account for the latent heat (moisture) that causes condensation. Adiabatic saturation is a process that adds moisture to the air to cool it, which would exacerbate the humidity problem in a fire station. Controlling specific volume for mass flow rate is a mechanical transport concern that does not address the psychrometric risk of moisture-related structural damage.
Takeaway: Effective HVAC design in high-infiltration zones requires precise management of the dew point to prevent condensation and ensure the structural and biological integrity of the facility.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Which description best captures the essence of Cold Chain Management HVAC Systems for Pharmaceutical Products for City & Guilds Level 3 Diploma in Refrigeration, Air Conditioning and Heat Pump Systems (C&G 6187-02)? A technician is evaluating a specialized refrigeration unit designed for a pharmaceutical warehouse that must maintain a strict temperature range of 2 degrees Celsius to 8 degrees Celsius. The system must also manage moisture levels to prevent packaging degradation and ensure the chemical stability of the stored vaccines.
Correct
Correct: Pharmaceutical cold chain systems require extreme precision and reliability. The integration of vapor compression cycles with psychrometric control allows for the simultaneous management of dry-bulb temperature and moisture content (humidity). Redundancy is a critical component of cold chain management to prevent product loss in the event of a component failure, and continuous monitoring ensures compliance with strict regulatory standards for product stability.
Incorrect: Modifying standard comfort cooling systems is insufficient because they lack the precision controls and fail-safes required for pharmaceutical tolerances. Prioritizing energy efficiency or defrost cycle reduction over dew point control is dangerous in this context, as moisture can damage packaging or lead to mold. Basic on/off thermostat control is inadequate for maintaining the narrow 2 to 8 degree Celsius range, as it typically results in temperature swings that exceed these limits.
Takeaway: Effective pharmaceutical cold chain management relies on the precise synchronization of thermodynamic cycles and psychrometric properties to maintain strict environmental stability and product integrity.
Incorrect
Correct: Pharmaceutical cold chain systems require extreme precision and reliability. The integration of vapor compression cycles with psychrometric control allows for the simultaneous management of dry-bulb temperature and moisture content (humidity). Redundancy is a critical component of cold chain management to prevent product loss in the event of a component failure, and continuous monitoring ensures compliance with strict regulatory standards for product stability.
Incorrect: Modifying standard comfort cooling systems is insufficient because they lack the precision controls and fail-safes required for pharmaceutical tolerances. Prioritizing energy efficiency or defrost cycle reduction over dew point control is dangerous in this context, as moisture can damage packaging or lead to mold. Basic on/off thermostat control is inadequate for maintaining the narrow 2 to 8 degree Celsius range, as it typically results in temperature swings that exceed these limits.
Takeaway: Effective pharmaceutical cold chain management relies on the precise synchronization of thermodynamic cycles and psychrometric properties to maintain strict environmental stability and product integrity.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A new business initiative at a broker-dealer requires guidance on Passenger Comfort and Air Quality Management in High-Traffic Public Spaces as part of incident response. The proposal raises questions about the psychrometric requirements for a large-scale atrium during a high-occupancy event where the latent heat gain from individuals is significant. To maintain a relative humidity of 50% and a dry bulb temperature of 22°C when the ambient outdoor conditions are 30°C and 70% relative humidity, which process must the air handling unit perform?
Correct
Correct: In high-traffic public spaces, occupants contribute significant latent heat (moisture). To maintain comfort and specific humidity levels when outdoor conditions are hot and humid, the air must be cooled below its dew point. This causes water vapor to condense out of the air, effectively reducing the moisture content (dehumidification) while also lowering the dry bulb temperature (sensible cooling).
Incorrect: Sensible cooling alone does not remove moisture from the air, which would lead to high relative humidity and discomfort in a high-occupancy scenario. Adiabatic or evaporative cooling reduces the dry bulb temperature but increases the moisture content, which is unsuitable for already humid conditions. Increasing the air change rate with 100% outdoor air that is 30°C and 70% humidity would increase both the sensible and latent loads on the space rather than providing comfort.
Takeaway: Effective humidity control in high-occupancy environments requires the cooling medium to operate below the air’s dew point to facilitate latent heat removal.
Incorrect
Correct: In high-traffic public spaces, occupants contribute significant latent heat (moisture). To maintain comfort and specific humidity levels when outdoor conditions are hot and humid, the air must be cooled below its dew point. This causes water vapor to condense out of the air, effectively reducing the moisture content (dehumidification) while also lowering the dry bulb temperature (sensible cooling).
Incorrect: Sensible cooling alone does not remove moisture from the air, which would lead to high relative humidity and discomfort in a high-occupancy scenario. Adiabatic or evaporative cooling reduces the dry bulb temperature but increases the moisture content, which is unsuitable for already humid conditions. Increasing the air change rate with 100% outdoor air that is 30°C and 70% humidity would increase both the sensible and latent loads on the space rather than providing comfort.
Takeaway: Effective humidity control in high-occupancy environments requires the cooling medium to operate below the air’s dew point to facilitate latent heat removal.